
We are told that we live in a post-modern age. Of course, we had to go through a modern age just to get here. But part of the problem is that many of us (me included) don't quite remember when there was a switch from modern to post-modern. But they say - whoever 'they' are - that the switch happened somewhere around the early 90s. Of course, there is dispute among 'them' as to whether it wasn't much later, perhaps closer to the end of the millennium. Whenever it happened, it seems like there should have been some sort of warning cry, a declarative: 'here it comes!' or something of the sort. Then we could have prepared a bit more. It was a great shock going from modern to post-modern; but then again, perhaps I'm only echoing the voices of those that knew - that is, the 'they'.
But does every age know about this eventual shift in era? I often wonder whether the ancients, for example, knew that they were, well, ancient? I wonder if they had a name for their era? It seems reasonable to think that they might have thought they were living in a modern age, a kind of present where everything around them - including development of architecture, tools, way of doing things, fashion, etc - was mostly new. Of course, tribal cultures might have not been interested in such things as temporal identifiers like the word 'era' or 'age'. It might have sufficed them to simply live in nature, if that's what they were doing, without the question of such significations even arising. They might not have thought about such things as 'terms' to describe their era. But this only leads to further questions regarding the sense the word 'era' has, which will come later.
Westerners seem to have always, or at least for a long time, been occuppied with terms to set off the times they live in. The Renaissance is one such term: the rebirth - rebirth of what? Old ideas in new clothing is what it seems. But isn't that common practice by any cultural context's standing, today being no different. One could ask what's new under the sun, really, except for a hightened level of technology? But the fact of rising levels of technology isn't new either. It has always been on the rise as people's lives have become more complex - though, I should say, complexity does not necessitate an advance in technology.
But does every age know about this eventual shift in era? I often wonder whether the ancients, for example, knew that they were, well, ancient? I wonder if they had a name for their era? It seems reasonable to think that they might have thought they were living in a modern age, a kind of present where everything around them - including development of architecture, tools, way of doing things, fashion, etc - was mostly new. Of course, tribal cultures might have not been interested in such things as temporal identifiers like the word 'era' or 'age'. It might have sufficed them to simply live in nature, if that's what they were doing, without the question of such significations even arising. They might not have thought about such things as 'terms' to describe their era. But this only leads to further questions regarding the sense the word 'era' has, which will come later.
Westerners seem to have always, or at least for a long time, been occuppied with terms to set off the times they live in. The Renaissance is one such term: the rebirth - rebirth of what? Old ideas in new clothing is what it seems. But isn't that common practice by any cultural context's standing, today being no different. One could ask what's new under the sun, really, except for a hightened level of technology? But the fact of rising levels of technology isn't new either. It has always been on the rise as people's lives have become more complex - though, I should say, complexity does not necessitate an advance in technology.
And what about the Middle Ages? Did the people of the Middle Ages think they were living in a middle period? And shouldn't we wonder where the end is of what seems to be suggested as a historical line here in order that we might distinguish this middle point? One could raise similar questions about the Dark Ages? I'm sure people weren't well off, but would they have said they were in a dark age? Perhaps. But I think, given the circumstances, people in bad parts of the world today have reason to think that this age is the dark age. Some might say today that the Dark Ages never passed. And yet, even if many did believe that they were living in the Dark Age, you never hear anywhere that there was a Post-Dark Age or even a post-Renaissance age, or post-Enlightenment age - well actually, I heard a few from the many ivory towers of academia refer to a post-Enlightenment age (but I'd say that the historical context in which the person was speaking from makes it so it doesn't count generally speaking). But when can we say that those ages passed? More importantly, when did they say those ages passed into 'post'? Did the ages somehow fade into the backdrop of terms? To this degree, one might question what comes after the post-modern age. My teacher used to say I guess it would be called a post-post-modern age. And after that I guess we might have to put exponents to distinguish between them, though that would be confusing I think.
Also the idea that we signify points of time as 'eras' is troubling, getting back to a former question. While it's difficult to say when it is that we pass from era to era, I think it's even more troublesome to say that this is an era we're in now. It at least seems that eras are distinguishable one could argue, but only insofar as certain contexts are concerned. For example in the Dark Age era, I don't think that the Shamans living in the Russian steppes were much concerned about what was happening in France nor were they feeling any effect of a so called 'dark age'. Aborigines neither where having the same problems that threatened to crush the lives of those in Britain at the time of England's Dark Ages. So do eras concern everyone on the earth or just certain people? I guess the question is directed to a post-modern perspective. This is so mainly because 'they' are the ones concerned to hold no underlying thesis; yet here, we have a label that is underlying as meaningful for an age, a label which not everyone is in agreement with. We still have shamans and aborigines, as we have tribal cultures. Were these people asked if about carrying a label such as post-modern? I read somewhere that the post-modern era describes a way of thinking, architecture, writing, media, yada, yada. But the problem is the second part of post-modern era. 'Era' seems to point to more than a certain context of people; it points to everyone, all people. But as I understand it, post-modernism embraces and celebrates difference, with there being no one absolute as 'the' absolute. In that sense, it supposedly rebukes ideals of the modern age - the 'post' here suggesting that we got over that hump. But I guess this must not apply to things like temporal-spacio significations like 'era', this moment, this time.
Also the idea that we signify points of time as 'eras' is troubling, getting back to a former question. While it's difficult to say when it is that we pass from era to era, I think it's even more troublesome to say that this is an era we're in now. It at least seems that eras are distinguishable one could argue, but only insofar as certain contexts are concerned. For example in the Dark Age era, I don't think that the Shamans living in the Russian steppes were much concerned about what was happening in France nor were they feeling any effect of a so called 'dark age'. Aborigines neither where having the same problems that threatened to crush the lives of those in Britain at the time of England's Dark Ages. So do eras concern everyone on the earth or just certain people? I guess the question is directed to a post-modern perspective. This is so mainly because 'they' are the ones concerned to hold no underlying thesis; yet here, we have a label that is underlying as meaningful for an age, a label which not everyone is in agreement with. We still have shamans and aborigines, as we have tribal cultures. Were these people asked if about carrying a label such as post-modern? I read somewhere that the post-modern era describes a way of thinking, architecture, writing, media, yada, yada. But the problem is the second part of post-modern era. 'Era' seems to point to more than a certain context of people; it points to everyone, all people. But as I understand it, post-modernism embraces and celebrates difference, with there being no one absolute as 'the' absolute. In that sense, it supposedly rebukes ideals of the modern age - the 'post' here suggesting that we got over that hump. But I guess this must not apply to things like temporal-spacio significations like 'era', this moment, this time.
Yet it seems that this ideal notion of signification is not as harmless as all that. Why should it be? Stalin's ideals as Hitler's ideals were just ideals: abstract thoughts thought in the abstract written down, sometimes, in places that illustrated the meaning of dire straits. But look how harmless the Holocaust was or that of the bloody history of a Stalin Russia. I guess one could say I'm making rediculous comparisons, or maybe at least, those that are a bit too extreme. Perhaps. But perhaps the violence that we find in those examples are analogous to the violent apathy that is intrinsic to the example that is the world we live in today. I'm not saying there is no caring; but I question what is the care itself like? One response is that it is nothing like any other response to the human condition in ages past. It is one that can be likened to animal watching at a zoo. We keep the danger far from us but revel at the danger; the movie culture watches super hero movies to keep from dying of vacuity; the popular culture elevates celebrity to divine status, and what has been deemed divine from forecultures past has been devolved to profane status; and truth is relegated to op-ed pieces by 'news journalists', most of whom have been effected by the ideology of 19th century Fox. We are one of the sole countries in the world, if not the sole country, who is at war though the country proper is in a relative state of peace. But what's important, I guess, is that we live in a post-modern age. I wonder if the innocent Iraquee people know this? I wonder if the American soldier cares to know this?

